Codex Teplensis
Waldensian or Roman Catholic?
by Glenn Conjurske
Codex Teplensis is a manuscript of about the year 1400, containing the New Testament in German. More than a century ago there was some controversy in Germany as to whether the translation owed its origin to the Waldenses or the Roman Catholics. At the present day certain advocates of the Textus Receptus or the King James Version have taken it upon themselves to contend for its Waldensian origin, and to further contend that it was translated from the Old Latin, not from Jerome's Vulgate. By this means they bolster their theory that the true text of the New Testament was preserved by the Waldenses, through the Old Latin version, and by this means they gain, as they suppose, another witness for the genuineness of I John 5:7, which Codex Teplensis contains.
But the advocates of these theories commonly offer nothing in support of them but their own assertions. They do not trouble themselves to examine any evidence whatsoever. And why should they? These doctrines are just that: they are doctrines. They are not based upon any factual or historical evidence. The advocates of these doctrines have no need to examine the facts of history. Since they are sure that the doctrines are true, they may assume that the facts of history must be in complete accordance with the doctrines. They therefore recklessly assert that such and such things are historical facts, when in fact they know nothing about the matter. It is often their way to take refuge in the silence of history, and it would be their wisdom to do so always, for where history is silent, at any rate it cannot contradict their assertions. But so confident are they in the truth of their doctrines, that they do not hesitate to speak even when their assertions may be subjected to the light of historical fact. And when the actual evidence is examined, it is found to overturn the doctrines at every point.
Some will doubtless think the whole matter unedifying, and wonder why we should trouble ourselves at all about a manuscript 600 years old. But there are thousands of dear brethren in Christ who are swallowed up in this system of prejudice----a system which falsifies a good deal of very important doctrine, besides the facts of history. I care for them, and for the truth of God, and therefore I labor to expose this system for what it is, and to dismantle it also. In this article I shall examine a little of the actual evidence, as found in Codex Teplensis itself, concerning its supposed Waldensian origin.
The first thing which arrests our attention is that the manuscript contains the Epistle Czun Laodiern, “to the Laodiceans.” This is not separated or set off from the canonical books, as the Apocrypha is in the Protestant Bibles, but is inserted between Second Thessalonians and First Timothy, as though it were one of Paul's epistles. This, I will grant, does not absolutely prove the Teplensis to be a Roman Catholic version, but it does prove some other things. If this version was made by the Waldenses, then it is absolutely proved, beyond question or cavil, that the Waldenses were not the preservers of the true text of Scripture. They were the custodians of a corrupted New Testament, to which someone, somewhere, had added this imposture called the Epistle to the Laodiceans. Henceforth let all those who cite Codex Teplensis as proof of the Waldensian preservation of I John 5:7, contend also for the Waldensian preservation of the genuine Epistle of Paul to the Laodiceans. They will have to give up, of course, their notions that the Textus Receptus and the King James Version contain the true text, for it is certain that they do not contain the epistle to the Laodiceans.
But more. Prefixed (not appended) to the New Testament, immediately following the title Di schrift des newen geczeugz (“The Writing of the New Testament”), the Codex Teplensis contains a small amount of additional matter, including quotations from Chrysostom and Augustine, and a list of Scripture portions, or pericopes, to be read on the various days of the church calendar, für das ganze Iahr, “for the whole year.” Herman Haupt contends that the fact that there are only twenty-eight saints' days in the register proves that the makers of the version were Waldensians----that is, as certain “historians” would have us believe, Baptists!! Among these saints' days are the usual festivals for Andrew, Thomas, Stephen, Saint Paul, Mary Magdalene, Matthew, Michael, and numerous others. If this is the work of Waldenses, then it is evident that the Waldenses were at least half Romanists themselves. I do not pretend to say where the truth lies, but will let the advocates for the Waldensian origin take which horn of the dilemma they please. One horn they must take. Codex Teplensis is either the work of Roman Catholics, or the Waldenses were half Romanists themselves, and in either case the testimony of Teplensis for the genuineness of I John 5:7 evaporates.
But more. In addition to these saints' days, the register contains also a number of holy days, including Ostern, that is, Easter, alle Heiligen (all Saints), Xc. abent, and Xc. tag, (Christmas eve and Christmas day), and to top all, Liechtmesse, that is, Candlemas! What Waldenses are these!
But more. Under “Christmas day” we find d. erst. messe, di 2 messe, and di 3 messe----the first mass, the second mass, and the third mass. The plain fact is, either this is a Romanist version, or the Waldenses were at least half Romanists themselves. Take which side you will, and Teplensis vanishes as a witness for the preservation of the true text by the true church.
Again, not tacked on at the end by some later hand, but prefixed to the New Testament at the beginning of the manuscript, occupying the first place in the manuscript following its title, there is a brief extract from Hugo de Victor's “II buch von den heilikeiten”----from his second book on the sacraments, that is----on confessing the sick. Hugo was a medieval monk, who lived c. 1097-1141. Now if, as the Baptist historians tell us, the Waldenses never formed part of the Church of Rome, but were separate from it from the beginning of its existence----if, that is, when Codex Teplensis was written, the Waldenses had been separate from the Church of Rome for about a thousand years, during all of which time they abhorred Rome's sacraments and refused her corrupt Bible----WHY are the Waldenses found quoting Hugo de Victor at all? And why on confessing the sick? The Baptists of more recent times, under the name of the American Bible Union, once produced their own version of the Bible, but it contained no quotation on confessing the sick, from any Roman Catholic book on the sacraments! If Baptists today were to produce a Bible version, would the first item in it be a quotation from a Catholic monk on confessing the sick? Again I insist, either the Codex Teplensis is the production of the Church of Rome, or the Waldenses were half Romanists themselves.
Once more: annexed to the end of the New Testament the manuscript contains a short treatise on, among other things, the seven sacraments. And once more I say, What Waldenses are these!
But a recent publication, in an article on “Codex Teplensis and the Waldenses,” attempts to evade the force of all of this by saying, “Again, the Codex contained the seven sacraments, but the Waldenses included religious material in their literature for the same purpose that the original 1611 KJV included the Apocryphal Books----for Scriptural analysis.” But again, this is assuming the facts, based solely upon the requirements of the doctrine. The actual facts are, we do not know WHY the producers of the King James Version included the Apocrypha, or WHY “the Waldenses” included the matter on the sacraments. Yet it is plain that the reason assigned by Dr. Strouse cannot be the true one. Neither confessing the sick, nor Christmas, nor Candlemas, nor All Saints Day, nor the Feast of Mary Magdalene have anything to do with Scriptural analysis.
The plain fact is, these statements, along with a thousand others which these folks commonly make about the facts of history, are based upon absolutely nothing of a historical nature. They are based solely upon doctrinal prejudice. Earlier in the same article Dr. Strouse says, “The aforementioned passage [I Tim. 3:15] strongly suggests that local NT church movement [sic] would be the depository and guardian, as well as the proclaimer, of the NT Scriptures.” This is the doctrine, and the historical method is given us in the next sentence: “Consequently, Baptists have believed that the NT Scriptures would be passed on through the believers of NT churches.” Yes, “WOULD BE”! Not “ARE,” or “HAVE BEEN,” but “WOULD BE”----for what these men give to us as facts of history are not derived from any historical sources whatsoever, but consist solely of such “facts” as their doctrine dictates.
This is the historical method commonly used by the advocates of these doctrines. One of the leaders of them recently told me, “There are no facts lying around out there. There is only our perception of the facts. Our perception may be either of faith, or it may be rationalistic.” This may be clever, but it is just as false as rationalism. Rationalism denies the existence of revelation, except where it is perceived to be consistent with fact. What these folks call faith denies the existence of facts, except where they are perceived to be consistent with revelation. But maugre all denials, both facts and revelation do exist, and there can be no contradiction between them. The design of such talk is of course to label as rationalistic all who do not believe these particular doctrines. When I asked this man whether he might not be mistaken concerning the doctrines, he claimed the infallible teaching of the Holy Ghost! Thus does this system divorce faith from everything concrete and objective, and place it at last in the whims, the bigotry, or the honest mistakes of every interpreter. But such faith is only conceit or superstition, and as far removed as possible from the Bible doctrine of faith. And if we remove the foundation from the individual mind, to place it in the “true churches,” we gain nothing. “True churches” have been mistaken times without number. Most of the “true churches” were post-millennial a century and a half ago, then disregarding the facts in order to maintain their notion that the world was growing better, as they now disregard them to maintain their notions concerning the text of Scripture, and founding both errors on what they call faith.
We all no doubt have our own doctrinal predilections, but to allow our doctrines to dictate what we are to regard as facts is as dangerous as it is fraudulent, for it deprives us of one of the most effectual checks against false doctrine. Yet so these men do, and do it avowedly and apparently unashamedly, and dignify the illicit process with the name of faith. Assuming the truth of the doctrine, then such and such facts “would be” true also, and they inquire no further, but affirm as facts things of which they know nothing. Indeed, this system obliges them to affirm as facts things which it would seem they must certainly know to be false. “The New Testament Scriptures would be passed on through the believers of New Testament churches.” Yes, but the King James Version was given to us by various ecclesiastics of the Church of England. To which New Testament churches did those sprinkled ecclesiastics belong? To what New Testament churches did the King's printers belong, who for generations “passed on” to us the King James Version, and revised it as they pleased in the bargain?
Such are the principles involved in this system. But I proceed to examine the translation contained in Codex Teplensis. It seldom happens that a translator of the Scriptures is so objective, so impartial, and so faithful, as to leave no trace of his own theology or prejudices upon the version which he produces. In this regard men who have no strong doctrinal prejudices are likely to produce a better version of the Scriptures than others could do. I believe this is one reason for the excellency of the King James Version. For the most part the translators had no doctrinal hobby horses to ride. Their whole study was to faithfully represent the original. Where the original was general, they had no compelling bias to make the translation specific----aside from the “old ecclesiastical terms,” which the king required them to use. Where the original was explicit, they could allow the translation to be so also.
But all translators do not possess such impartiality. Allow me to illustrate. There is a manuscript version of the Gospels in English, of about the same date as the German Codex Teplensis. This is known as the Pepysian Gospel Harmony. In most places it is a good, literal translation, but in other places it displays the translator's propensity to paraphrase, to abridge, and to expand, and some of those places very plainly indicate the Roman Catholic origin of the version. One example may suffice: “And êo ansuered Jesus hym and seide: `J seie êe forsoêe êat êou art Petre on wham j schal founde my chirche. And êou schalt haue power in heuene and in erêe & in helle.”' This is all Roman Catholic, and too plain to be mistaken.
Now when I began to study Codex Teplensis, I did so with the hope that I might find some such proof of its origin. I soon despaired of it, however, for Teplensis is generally a very literal translation from the Latin Vulgate, with none of the tendencies to paraphrase and expand which are evident in the Pepysian manuscript. I was therefore as astonished as I was elated to discover a mark so irresistible and so pervasive that it left (so I thought!) no possible doubt about the real origin of the version.
I hardly need say that all Bible versions know how to distinguish between a man and a maid. A man is one thing, and a virgin quite another, and these two are kept as distinct in a translation of the Bible as they are in the original. This is true of Codex Teplensis, as it is of all other Bible versions. A man is the German man. A maid is the German maid. As spelling was rather capricious in the days of handwritten manuscripts, the word is variously spelled in Teplensis, and we find it as mait, maid, meid, meide, and even maigt, but in every place (but one) where the word “virgin” appears in the New Testament, we find maid in Codex Teplensis. There is but one exception to this. Philip's four daughters who were virgins are called iunffrawen----where Luther, 1522, has, as usual, jungfrawen----a different word, but meaning strictly, “virgin.”
So far, then, all is well, and these two things, so distinct in their natures, are distinct in the translation also. But all does not remain well for long, for as soon as we come to the familiar “Son of man,” by which the Lord so constantly designates himself, we read not sun des menschen, or (with Luther) des menschen son, but sun der maid----“son of the VIRGIN”! And so we find it almost everywhere in Codex Teplensis:
Matt. 8:20----sun der maid.
Matt. 13:37----Sun der meide.
Mark 2:28----Sun der meid.
Mark 14:41----Sun der maid.
Luke 9:26----Sun der meid.
Yet to prove that they knew how to translate “son of man,” we find:
Mark 13:26----Sun dez menschen.
Luke 6:5----Sun dez menschen.
Luke 11:30----Sun dez menschen.
To make a long story short, in 79 places which I have examined, where “son of man” occurs in the New Testament, the Tepl manuscript reads “son of man” only seven times, all the rest having “son of the virgin.” This, if I knew nothing else about the matter, I should think rather plainly marked the translation as the work of Romanists, for it is certainly the Romanists who are always thrusting in “the virgin” where she does not belong. If the Waldenses produced this version, it appears that the Waldenses must have been very much Romanized themselves----or more likely, as was the case with Lutherans and Episcopalians after them, never quite unRomanized after they came out from the Church of Rome. For if this Teplensis is in any sense Waldensian, it certainly adds a great deal to the existing evidence of the Roman Catholic origin of the Waldenses.
And it so happens that Herman Haupt, in contending for the Waldensian origin of Codex Teplensis, actually uses the presence of sun der maid in the translation as one of his main arguments in favor of its Waldensian character. This might seem incredible, if we knew nothing else about the matter. But Haupt points out that other medieval versions which are known to be Waldensian contain the very same corruption. This I was unaware of, but I have verified it. The old Romance, or Provençal, Waldensian version invariably reads Filh de la vergena (“Son of the virgin”) instead of “Son of man”----except only in Heb. 2:6, where (of course) it has filh de l'ome, “son of man.” I cannot pretend, with my present knowledge, to say for certain whether the Teplensis is Waldensian or Roman Catholic, but I can say without the least fear of contradiction that if the translation is indeed the work of the Waldenses, then the Waldenses were not the preservers of the true text of Scripture, but the corrupters of it. This sun der maid is no accident, but a deliberate corruption. The makers of Codex Teplensis either translated from corrupt manuscripts, or they deliberately corrupted the translation. I really suppose it must be the latter, for I am not aware of any manuscripts, Greek or Latin, which read “Son of the virgin.” In either case the makers of this version were certainly not the preservers of the true text of Scripture. They were either the “preservers” of a corrupt text, or they corrupted the text themselves. Again, you may take which horn of the dilemma you please. Either the Waldenses had nothing to do with Codex Teplensis, or the Waldenses were the corrupters of the text of Scripture. In either case the supposed witness of Codex Teplensis for the preservation of the true text by the true church absolutely vanishes, and its testimony in favor of I John 5:7 is absolutely nullified.
And with this I might have done, yet to prevent any possible misconception on the part of the ignorant, I must notice one further statement in the article by Thomas Strouse. He says, “In subsequent centuries, Codex Teplensis was gradually modified by Romanists for the purpose of harmonizing it with the Vulgate and Romish dogma.” This statement as it stands is certainly false. Codex Teplensis is a fourteenth-century manuscript, which has never been modified at all, but exists today just as it did in the fourteenth century, and just as it was written by the scribes who wrote it. The Codex has not been altered at all.
But the Codex must be distinguished from the version which it contains. When the German Bible was first printed, (the Mentel Bible, in 1466), the version printed was the same as that which is contained in Codex Teplensis. This version was reprinted numerous times in Germany before the beginning of the Protestant Reformation. It is granted that the printers of at least most of those editions were Romanists, and it is also a certainty that in the printed editions the text was gradually revised, but this process of revision of course left Codex Teplensis itself absolutely untouched----as much as the subsequent revisions of the King James Version left the copies which were printed in 1611 untouched. The version was modified, but the previously existing copies of it were not. Now Codex Teplensis is a manuscript copy, and in spite of the subsequent revisions of the version in the printed copies, the text and accompanying matter of the Codex Teplensis itself remain just what they were when the manuscript was written, and all of the remarks which I have written above are based upon the contents of the manuscript, as it is, was, and always has been.
But apply Dr. Strouse's statement to the subsequent printings of the version contained in it, rather than to Codex Teplensis itself, and still it is wrong. “Harmonizing it with the Vulgate and Romish dogma,” he says, as though it were possible to do both. This is mere prejudice. Let it be understood that the Latin Vulgate----though imperfect, as is every human translation----is yet a Bible, and Romish dogma is not supported by conforming to the Vulgate, but by departing from it. It was the Latin Vulgate which Wycliffe translated into English, and it was Wycliffe's translation of the Vulgate which was banned by the Romanists. It was by means of the Latin Vulgate that Wycliffe exposed the corruptions of Rome.
Haupt addresses the character of the subsequent revision of the Teplensis version in the following language: “One is compelled by the radical manner of that revision to the supposition that, to the reviser, it had to do with something more than the preparation of a readable Bible text. The brutal ejection from the German Bible version of hundreds of true pearls of the medieval German word treasury, which in good part could be replaced only by inappropriate or Latin-borrowed expressions, seems to us to prove rather plainly that the Catholic revision thereby aimed at the same time to divest the Waldenses' German Bible work of its popular character, and so to eliminate the last trace of its non-catholic origin.” But even supposing that we grant all of this, this is yet a long way from conforming the version to Romish dogma. I call upon those who assert this to give us some plain examples by which to prove it. The fact is, there is almost nothing in the Vulgate which, fairly interpreted, can be construed to lend any support to Romish dogma. We suppose the Latin sacramentum (for the Greek v , “secret”) might do so indeed, but what are the facts concerning sacramentum? Observe:
1.In some of the places where the Vulgate has it, so has the Old Latin. Such is the case in Eph. 3:9, Rev. 1:20, and probably others. And since the theory is that the Waldenses used the pure Old Latin rather than the corrupt Vulgate, surely that theory has nothing to stand on here.
2.In a number of places where sacramentum appears in the Vulgate, there is no change between the Codex Teplensis and the subsequent printed editions of the version. Teplensis itself reads heilikeit, that is, “sacrament.” This is the case in Eph. 1:9, 3:3, 3:9,5:32, and I Tim. 3:16.
3.Finally, in Rev. 17:7 Codex Teplensis reads taugen (“secret,” that is), which is altered in the printed editions to sacrament. How is this to be explained? This is no doubt the result of using differing texts of the Vulgate, the Teplensis being based upon the Latin mysterium, and the printed editions upon sacramentum. This variation actually exists in the Vulgate mss. at Rev. 17:7. And it is a certain fact that the very same alteration occurs in Rev. 1:20 in the Wycliffe Bible, the early version reading “mysterie,” and the revision, “sacrament.” Will anyone accuse the Wycliffites of revising their Bible to conform it to Romish dogma?
I give one more example: the false rendering “Son of the virgin,” which is so pervasive in the manuscript, was gradually corrected in the printed editions, being conformed to the reading of the Vulgate----“Son of man.” Whether this served to conform the version to Romish dogma, and eliminate the traces of Waldensianism, I leave my readers to judge.
Now in the light of the plain facts presented in this article, we would expect those who have contended for the Waldensian origin of the Teplensis to quickly bolt from their position, and contend rather for its Roman Catholic origin. But such a flight will scarcely help them, while the old Provençal Waldensian version corrupts Filh de l'ome into Filh de la vergena no less than eighty-two times. What will they do with this fact?
To conclude, those who hold the doctrines of the preservation of the true text of Scripture (or the succession of the true churches of God) among the Waldenses would do better to abandon Codex Teplensis. It does not help their cause in the least, but damages it immeasurably. They would do much better to prove Teplensis to be a Roman Catholic work----though that would not be easy. In either case, whether Catholic or Waldensian, Teplensis vanishes as a witness for the true text----vanishes as a witness for the preservation of the true church----and vanishes in particular as a witness for I John 5:7. It contains I John 5:7, no doubt, but this proves only that the verse was in the Latin Vulgate, which we knew already. As for those who wish to cite Codex Teplensis as a witness for the true text in I John 5:7, let them also contend for “son of the virgin” and the Epistle to the Laodiceans.
Beyond all of this, it is an indubitable fact that the version contained in Codex Teplensis closely follows the Latin Vulgate, and differs in a myriad of places from the Textus Receptus and the King James Version, but the proof of that I must reserve for another article.