Steven Avery
Administrator
In other threads, too, coalesce here.
TWO references.
"God Over All" in Romans 9:5: Translation Issues and Theological Import
Greg Stafford
Hippolytus refers to Romans 9:5 twice in his work Against the Heresy of one Noetus. The first reference is used in relation to the Noetians argument that Christ was the Father Himself![14] Hyppolytus then uses Romans 9:5 in support of his own view that Christ is indeed "God over all," for the Father has delivered all things to him (compare Mt 11:27).[15] He also refers to 1 Corinthians 15:23-28 and John 20:17 to show that while Christ is indeed "Lord of all," the Father "is Lord of him." Thus, the grammar of the passage is such that the Noetians felt justified in seeing a reference to Christ as the Father in Romans 9:5. Hippolytus viewed the entire text as a reference to Christ as "God over all," in a somewhat Trinitarian sense, but he still qualified the use of "over all" in such a way that allowed the Father to be Lord over Christ.
Hippolytus applies the term "God" to Christ in Romans 9:5 in such a way that it is redefined to be consistent with Hippolytus’ analogy of "light from light, or as water from a fountain, or as a ray from the sun."[16] The Bible does not use the term God in this way, nor does it make use of such analogies when it comes to the issue of the Logos as theos, in relation to God the Father.
[14] ANF 5, 224.
[15] Ibid., 225.
[16] Ibid., 227.
TWO references.
"God Over All" in Romans 9:5: Translation Issues and Theological Import
Greg Stafford
Hippolytus refers to Romans 9:5 twice in his work Against the Heresy of one Noetus. The first reference is used in relation to the Noetians argument that Christ was the Father Himself![14] Hyppolytus then uses Romans 9:5 in support of his own view that Christ is indeed "God over all," for the Father has delivered all things to him (compare Mt 11:27).[15] He also refers to 1 Corinthians 15:23-28 and John 20:17 to show that while Christ is indeed "Lord of all," the Father "is Lord of him." Thus, the grammar of the passage is such that the Noetians felt justified in seeing a reference to Christ as the Father in Romans 9:5. Hippolytus viewed the entire text as a reference to Christ as "God over all," in a somewhat Trinitarian sense, but he still qualified the use of "over all" in such a way that allowed the Father to be Lord over Christ.
Hippolytus applies the term "God" to Christ in Romans 9:5 in such a way that it is redefined to be consistent with Hippolytus’ analogy of "light from light, or as water from a fountain, or as a ray from the sun."[16] The Bible does not use the term God in this way, nor does it make use of such analogies when it comes to the issue of the Logos as theos, in relation to God the Father.
[14] ANF 5, 224.
[15] Ibid., 225.
[16] Ibid., 227.