Steven Avery
Administrator
Both are partially right.
Here is one wonderful word-order point from cjab.
https://forums.carm.org/threads/trinitarian-confusion-at-romans-9-5.8316/page-22#post-661492
My comment
https://forums.carm.org/threads/trinitarian-confusion-at-romans-9-5.8316/page-22#post-662107
Here is one wonderful word-order point from cjab.
Second you've overlooked that if Paul had intended to say (as you suggest), "Christ according to the flesh is God above all," then Paul's meaning is really "Christ is God according to the flesh and above all". Thus he would have written "Χριστὸς ὁ ὢν Θεὸς τὸ κατὰ σάρκα καὶ ἐπὶ πάντων."
https://forums.carm.org/threads/trinitarian-confusion-at-romans-9-5.8316/page-22#post-661492
- Trinitarian confusion at Romans 9:5
Nice "argument." I addressed this earlier in the thread with the specific manuscripts. I could provide a fairly extensive list as well, since I have examined the uncials and over a hundred minuscules. Here is a simple question: ὁ μὴ ὢν μετ’ ἐμοῦ κατ’ ἐμοῦ ἐστιν, καὶ ὁ μὴ συνάγων μετ’ ἐμοῦ...
forums.carm.org
My comment
https://forums.carm.org/threads/trinitarian-confusion-at-romans-9-5.8316/page-22#post-662107
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