Grantley McDonald - Theory of Fabrication, Margin and Interpolation

Steven Avery

Administrator
This is the major hidden link in the writing of Grantley, and contras in general.

Facebook
Pure Bible
https://www.facebook.com/groups/purebible/permalink/1457367567688461/?comment_id=2872128112879059
https://www.facebook.com/groups/purebible/permalink/1457367567688461/?comment_id=2872188736206330
https://www.facebook.com/groups/pur...88736206330&reply_comment_id=2872319639526573


PBF was originally going to be here:
https://purebibleforum.com/index.ph...-arius-grantley-mcdonald.421/page-2#post-5300

Add the "embryonic" section from RGA.

Edward Freer Hills
In the third place, the omission of the Johannine comma involves a grammatical difficulty. ... Thus the hypothesis that the Johannine comma is an interpolation is full of difficulties.

Frederick Nolan
The "motley text" was the only known reference by Porson to the grammar of his favored short text with three witnesses. Porson, as essentially an unbeliever, did not really mind that the Johannine text he favored was "motley", so he just stuck the comment in en passant in a context about Latin-->Greek issue. Porson acknowledges that the supposed Latin interpolation, when translated to Greek, "made good Greek of their Latin". Ironically, he was also acknowledging the patching up of the "motley text" he favored as authentic.

Plus we should go through Grantley's attempt to make a historical reconstruction of interpolation events. This is an area that is also glossed over, Grantley's approach has similarities to that adapted by James Snapp (who may have used Grantley in developing his approach.) And is exceedingly superficial.
 
Last edited:

Steven Avery

Administrator
The list of allegorical uses of the earthly witnesses from Grantley is long and deep, even into the 500s.

This is puzzling. If the verse was created in the 200s or 300s, and was virtually universal by the time of the Council of Carthage, why would somebody in the 500s (e.g. Maxentius) allegorize the 8th verse?
 

Steven Avery

Administrator
the gloss, allegorical margin-to text theories - an Ockham evaluation

We will try to pull together the various sections first, some are in the Facebook posts above.

RGA p. 49-50
The most convincing explanation for the occurrence of the comma in some early Latin bibles is that a gloss recording some version of the comma,
formed from a combination of the allegorical interpretation of verse 8 and the two symbola, was written in the margin of a particular Latin bible, next to 1 Jn 5:8, possibly already formalised in some kind of credal statement. As Frances Young has pointed out, “creed-like statements and confessions must in practice have provided the hermeneutical key to the public reading of scripture.”67 The gloss was then evidently absorbed into the text when a later scribe copying this manuscript mistakenly believed that it was a correction in his parent manuscript rather than an extraneous addition.

An understanding of how this may have happened is provided by some of the earliest citations of the comma, found in the De Trinitate attributed
(erroneously) to Athanasius.68 ....

67 Young, 1997, 18.

68- ( long note, I believe Grantley misses the latest good scholarship from Junghoo Kwon in 2011 and 2012, and the later Dattrino writing in 2009 - I'll plan on making this a separate note).
 
Top