Steven Avery
Administrator
NT Textual Criticism
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NTT...1v69m7WC_p19Fb-ufrDme7BonEwxTfXDTaW&__tn__=-R
Azim Mamanov
12 hrs
I would like to continue discussing grammatical inconsistency of 1 John 5:7-8 without CJ. In the recent post we were discussing the "masculine-neutral-masculine" grammatical anomaly pointed out by Ilias Theodosis. The present grammatical anomaly is related to the ending of verse 8: "... καὶ οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν.", literally translated as "… and the three are into the one." (YLT). Here is what Ilias had to say about the ending in one of the earlier threads, "In greek, "εἰς το" can not be used, unless it has been previously determined what exactly is this "εν" refers to." It means that there should be an indication about "the" one earlier in the passage. And it's found in CJ, while without CJ there's no such reference. Let me illustrate it:
https://www.facebook.com/groups/NTT...1v69m7WC_p19Fb-ufrDme7BonEwxTfXDTaW&__tn__=-R
Azim Mamanov
12 hrs
I would like to continue discussing grammatical inconsistency of 1 John 5:7-8 without CJ. In the recent post we were discussing the "masculine-neutral-masculine" grammatical anomaly pointed out by Ilias Theodosis. The present grammatical anomaly is related to the ending of verse 8: "... καὶ οἱ τρεῖς εἰς τὸ ἕν εἰσιν.", literally translated as "… and the three are into the one." (YLT). Here is what Ilias had to say about the ending in one of the earlier threads, "In greek, "εἰς το" can not be used, unless it has been previously determined what exactly is this "εν" refers to." It means that there should be an indication about "the" one earlier in the passage. And it's found in CJ, while without CJ there's no such reference. Let me illustrate it: