https://www.facebook.com/groups/164...zhY-ridpntAorxNlTXhBgwuGoshcN0G4&__tn__=<,P-R
Steven Avery
Admin
All-star contributor
· ·
dseStorpno8gh54fh0lh5gt7138911f413cih85h70h1m8c0ulc37552m9ft ·
On Youtube, Asahel is reading, starting from Matthew, from the errant
New American Standard (1995)
On the first chapter, I placed a note identifying the version, which they deleted.
Asi weaves in his own disjointed analysis, including the false arguments for "yahweh-(jupiter)"pushing.
Then in Matthew 5:32, a verse about the betrothal period, his "Version" replaces fornication:
Matthew 5:32 (AV)
“But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.”
this becomes
"except for the reason of unchastity"
1995 NASV
A very flexible word. A girl's skirt may not be long enough below the knee for the elders, and she could be called unchaste.
You can see how Homestead Heritage abuses this bad translation, since they today often like to encourage divorce and even adulterous remarriage against covenant spouses. When one spouse is not enthusiastic to the fellership. The priests of Yahweh who run Homestead like the flexibility that "unchaste" gives their eldership.
Rebekah Lohnes
Steve you cannot nail down fornication in the AV to mean strictly premarital sex IN ANY PLACE.
The word fornication is found 13 times in the AV not including the Apocrypha. NUMEROUS times it's refering to adultery and prostitution. In other cases it's refering to other types of sexual immorality.
My favorite verse where it occurs is here:
1 Corinthians 6:18
“Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that committeth fornication sinneth against his own body.”
If you change the word from its general meaning WHICH INCLUDES ADULTERY, to only mean premarital sex, this verse would look ludicrous.
The Scripture was written for all time to ALL ppl. 2Tim. 3:16AV.
Matthew was not only written for Jews who had a custom that does not pertain to most ppl today.
Rendering the word "fornication" in Matt. 19:9 and Matt. 5:32 to mean strictly premarital sex renders the verses useless to Christians today.
The reason Christ said fornication and not adultery in those verses is because there is more than one type of sexual immorality that one can divorce over.
Not all post marital sexual immorality is "adultery", m@sterb@tion is a great example, so is running an OnlyFans account, or beastiality.
So Christ was saying you are permitted divorce over ANY KIND of POST marital sexual sin(adultery,m@sterb@tion, porn, working or using an OnlyFans account, strip dancing, public flashing, public twerking, beastiality, perhaps even a husband stubbornly insisting on the "Onan method" contrary to God's command to be fruitful ).
Coming between families the way HH does is evil, however your take on all divorce WITH a remarriage(while the former spouse is yet alive) is wrong. And it icondemned here as coming from an antiChrist spirit of those who've turned away from the Biblical gospel:
1 Timothy 4:3AV
“Forbidding to marry, and commanding to abstain from meats, which God hath created to be received with thanksgiving of them which believe and know the truth.”
I wrestled with this doctrine of demons for 10 years til God showed me the truth.
Steve I've said it before, and I'll say it again. You are straining at gnats and have swallowed the camel. You are being a Pharisee. You need to repent.
Emmanuel Oluwafemi Odeyemi read what I said to him. He is wrong.
