> Anthony Buzzard
> "the light has become personalized as a masculine." Time - 4:30

The Greek of John 1
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=JkfVeWLIZ4o

(This comment below was placed on this page, but it is not showing up. I am using additional methods to get the question to Anthony Buzzard.)

The next is one of many threads that tried to use the Buzzard approach.

Buzzard, αὐτόν in John 1:10 , αὐτό in John 1:5.
https://forums.carm.org/vb5/index.ph...7;-in-john-1-5

Anthony Buzzard fuller quote:
Down in verse 10, I want you to note that the light has become personalized as a masculine. In other words, this is the feature of grammar which is quite common in the New Testament, when you take a grammatically neuter word and give it personality by breaking the rules of grammar, so to speak. And so, down in verse 10: It was in the world, actually "he" because Jesus had now come into the world in the story, and the world was made through him, absolutely. With him in mind, with him in intention, as Dr. James Dunn says nicely "with him in intention." And the world did not recognize him. Now that light has now become a masculine αὐτόν rather than αὐτό, showing personality in the light because Jesus has gone from a pre-existing plan and purpose to an actual historical person. Now we are in harmony with the birth narratives of Matthew and Luke, and we're not contradicting them.
Focus on the Kingdom - June, 1011
http://focusonthekingdom.org/139.pdf
1 The neuter “light,” phos, of John 1:5 becomes a person, him (auton) only in verse 10.
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NOTE TO ANTHONY BUZZARD SEEKING CORRECTION OF THE CLAIM THAT LIGHT IS TAKING MASCULINE GRAMMAR IN VERSE 10


Anthony, This does not match what has been written about the chapter, and I believe any good Greek grammarian would correct this assertion. The "He of "He was in the world" is a new subject. And in verses 10-16 the "he" and "his" are simply grammatically connected to the postcedent Jesus Christ in v. 17, thus the masculine grammar. John is using a superb and revelatory writing style, and thus the cataphoric grammatical structure.

You can also see this in English by simply removing the adjectival and descriptive phrases (the interludes.)

There are no rules of grammar broken, so to speak.
And there is not any constructio ad sensum involved in the chapter.
Light retains its normal neuter grammar, no exceptional natural gender changing mid-chapter.

Now, I really do not know if this correction is very important for your perspective on John 1, however it is important for properly representing the chapter.

Please consider studying this out, and to be ready to make a needed correction.

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Oh, an excellent short help was posted a few years ago on a discussion forum where you were discussing this question:

Dale Tuggy interviewed by J. Dan Gill
http://trinities.org/blog/dale-tuggy...dan-gill-dale/


and really helps to explain why the Light is not grammatically connected.

villanovanus - December 30, 2012 @ 11:42 pm The group of 6 verses John 1:4-9 is an “interlude“, that presents the “word” (logos, masculine) as “life” (z, feminine) and, in turn, as “light” (phs, neuter), with a sub-interlude (John 1:6-8) on John the Baptist being the “witness to the light”.
You can remove the interlude (for study, don't mangle the word of God! ) and you can then more easily see the grammatical core.

The only possible grammatical connections for the masculine John 1:10 "He" is Jesus Christ in verse 1:17 and the Logos in John 1:1, both masculine. So there is no unusual grammar. There is simply a little distance to the postcedent or antecedent, which is common. The stronger case seems to be the cataphoric intent of pointing to the revelation of Jesus Christ in v. 17, since Jesus is being described in the verses starting at 1:10. The two antecedents/postcedents are complementary to one another, and the reader could begin with the Logos in view and have his sense move towards Jesus Christ. They are conceptually connected, simply by the reading of the text, whether one is Biblical Unitarian, Trinitarian, Oneness or Anythingness.

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June, 2017 CARM Threads (by which time the issues were fully clarified)

The Sheep know the antecedent of "his" in John 1:10 even without Greek
https://forums.carm.org/vb5/forum/th...-without-greek

Antecedent of αὐτὸν in v.10 is Jesus Christ (J.1:17), according to one poster.
https://forums.carm.org/vb5/forum/th...-to-one-poster


Thanks!
Steven Avery