what is the grammatical gender concord argument for 1John 5?

why is this grammatical question of significance?

is the argument complex? does it require Greek knowledge to understand?

are there other grammatical arguments involving 1John 5?

what is an internal argument?

how does the grammatical argument relate to the external (manuscript and ECW evidences)?

what is the history of the development of the argument?

who are the principle figures in favor of the argument? opposed? others?

who are the principle figures in the public debate today?

who is the most important historical figure in seeing the short 3-witness text as a solecism?

what are the objection responses to the force of the argument?
a) constructio ad sensum
b) masculine participle acts as subjunctive
c) hybrid and other arguments
d) the grammar does not change with the heavenly witnesses

what is the basic underlying theory of grammatical excellence in reviewing variants?

how have Greek grammar studies changed from the days of Bible belief and classical studies?

are there interesting quotes form short text supporters?

why do the short text defenders have so many conflicting explanations for their text?

what is the overall conclusion as to the grammatical argument?

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