Nehemia Gordon has pointed this out, I may have it on the CARM page.

Why go into formalities on the qamets, to change the vowel, when the cholem is being dropped anyway, essentially making it a gibberish word (vowel missing.)

Here is a good starting point.

(Remember, too that the yahweh-pushers have not grappled with the idea of masking an unknown name. Is the idea that the Masoretes were putting in vowels for a name they did not know? Then why not place the cholem from Adonai, and leave the qamets alone. And how would they know if they hit or missed?)


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Sami Uusi-Luomalahti
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Just thinking about adonay-theory..

Let's assume that masoretes put vowels of adonay in JHVH. If that's the real case, why they take out middle vowel? To prevent to pronounce it as 'adonay'? So why they change any vowels if they don't want to pronounce it as adonay? Isn't that schizophrenic?

If they first changed violently vowels to JHVH, take out middle vowel against all rules, why should they care any rules of hebrew by changing adonay's first vowel hataf patah to sheva?

Best way to prevent pronouncing is to let all vowels out of JHVH. But Jews could pronounce it anyway because they don't need necessarily vowel marks at all. They can read hebrew without vowel marks.

We saw for sure, they broke a rule by changing at least hiriq to JHVH cases like 'adonay JHVH'. That is the fact. But who can tell about qamats in JHVH and say for sure: "that belongs to adonay"? What you can deduce about looking at one vowel? The vowel itself does not carry a flag "I'm belong to adonay". It is pure coincidence that words have same vowels and letters.